Train Problems for PA/SA Exams

1. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?
A. 120 metres         B. 180 metres
C. 324 metres   D. 150 metres


2.A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in which the train is going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:

A. 45 km/hr B. 50 km/hr
C. 54 km/hr D. 55 km/hr  


3.The length of the bridge, which a train 130 metres long and travelling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 seconds, is:
A. 200 m B. 225 m
C. 245 m D. 250 m



4. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is:
A. 1 : 3   B. 3 : 2
C. 3 : 4   D. None of these


5.A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?
A. 120 m B. 240 m
C. 300 m D. None of these






6. A train 240 m long passes a pole in 24 seconds. How long will it take to pass a platform 650 m long?
A. 65 sec B. 89 sec
C. 100 sec D. 150 sec


7. Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 46 km/hr and 36 km/hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The length of each train is:
A. 50 m      B. 72 m
C. 80 m      D. 82 m



8.A train 360 m long is running at a speed of 45 km/hr. In what time will it pass a bridge 140 m long?
A. 40 sec B. 42 sec
C. 45 sec D. 48 sec



9. Two trains are moving in opposite directions @ 60 km/hr and 90 km/hr. Their lengths are 1.10 km and 0.9 km respectively. The time taken by the slower train to cross the faster train in seconds is:
A. 36 B. 45
C. 48 D. 49



10. A jogger running at 9 kmph alongside a railway track in 240 metres ahead of the engine of a 120 metres long train running at 45 kmph in the same direction. In how much time will the train pass the jogger?
A. 3.6 sec B. 18 sec
C. 36 sec D. 72 sec

Latest News about PA/SA Direct Recruitment Exam

I.Aptitude Test (Paper I) for Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu circles is scheduled on 21 April 2013. Admit cards are being dispatched to all eligible candidates. In case you do not receive the Admit Card by 11-April 2013, then you can download the same online fromwww.indiapost.gov.in using Direct Recruitment PA/SA Examination link from 12_April-2013 onwards. You can also report discrepancy in Admit Card data from 12-April-2013 using the link GENERATE ADMIT CARD on the same web site.

II.Some applicants have been issued Admit card without PHOTOGRAPH. All such applicants may visit the website www.indiapost.gov.in to reconfirm their eligibility. On scrutiny it was found that photograph in case of some applicants was not pasted on the application form. Please note that the candidature for all such applicants is cancelled and they will not be allowed to appear in Aptitude Test (Paper I).

To Know the Status/ Download Admit Card

Previous Year Questions PA/SA Exams

                     

English Meaning for PA / SA Exams

Accept – Admit

Except – Excluding

Access - Obtain or retrievefrom a storagedevice

Excess - Going beyondlimits

Insure - Providing financialcompensation in theevent of damage

Ensure - to make sure

Affect - Mental state

Effect - The result of an action

Amend - Makeimprovements to

Emend - Correctmistake in

Ball - Round object that ishit or thrown orkicked in games

Bale - A large bundlebound forstorage ortransport

Born - Massive plantigradecarnivorous 

Borne -  Cause to beborn

Buy - Obtain by purchase 

By -‘A preposition with a range of meaning s’

Calendar - A system of timekeeping 

Colander - Bowl-shapedstrainer, usedto wash ordrain foods 

Cannon - A large artillery gunthat is usually onwheels 

Canon - A rule orespeciallybody of rules

Complement - a complete number 

Compliment - A remark (oract) expressingpraise andadmiration

Council - A body serving in anadministrativecapacity

Counsel - A lawyer whopleads cases incourt 

Currant - A Piece of dried fruit

Current - Movingstream of water in theseaHappeningNow

Defuse - Remove thetriggering device 

Diffuse - Move outward 

Disassemble - take apart into itsconstituent pieces 

Dissemble - Make believewith the intentto deceive 

Factious - Dissenting with themajority opinion 

Fractious – Easily irritatedor annoyed 

PA/SA Direct Recruitment Examination - Postal Volume V

Q1 The service responsible for the carriage of mails by rail, road,river and air and for the collection and distribution of mails receivedfrom Post Offices by Mail Offices and sections is called as

RMS ( Railway Mail Services )

Q2 First class Head Office situated at the Headquarters of theHead of a Circle or, where there are more than one such HeadOffice, the one attached to the Headquarters Then such type ofOffices are called as ----

General Post Office

Q3 -------- office is in direct account with a Head or sub-officewhich is termed its accounts office and its monetary transactionsare in-corporated in the accounts of the latter office

Branch

Q4 Which office established at the Headquarters of a PostalCircle and deals with unclaimed and refused articles

Returned Letter Office.

Q5 What are the main classification of Mail offices?

Sorting Mail Offices and transit Mail Offices.

Q6 what is the difference between Mail office and transit office

The mail office deals the contents of mail bags addressed tothem as well as with closed forward bagsThe transit bag deal only with closed bags

Q7 What is meant by PSO ?

Press Sorting Office

 Q8 In exceptional cases, Head Post Offices can also function asDistrict Bag OfficeThe above said statement is

True

Q9 ---------- works as central Bag Office

D’ Section of Postal Directorate

Q10 ------ bag office is not deal any bag ?

The central Bag office ( deals with the correspondence relatingto procurement and distribution of bags)

Q11 A journey performed by a set of a section traveling on dutyfrom one end of its beat to the other is called -------

Trip

 Q12 Labelled bundle treated as ------------ article

Single

Q13 Mention the Classification of Labelled Bundle

Station bundles and Sorting bundles

Q14 The deferred bundle is included under the category of ----------- bundle

Sorting Bundle

Q15 The white check-slip is used for both ------ and ---------bundle

Express and deferred

Q16 Mention the classification of Mail Bags

Station mail bags, sorting mail bags and combined mail bags

 Q17 The insured letter bag should be dispatched inside the --------bag

Registered

Q18 When a bag sent by Head Office to the sub-office, itcontains the S.O. slip and when sent by the sub-office to the HeadOffice, it contains the S.O. daily account. Which is that bag?

Account Bag

Q19 What is meant by A Orders

A orders are orders issued by a Superintendent, RMS prescribingchanges in sorting lists.

Q20 parcel bags, packet bas, special bags, camp bags, telegraphbagsThe above mentioned bags are included in --------------- categorymails

Unusual mail

Q21 What is the usage of Trial Cards

Determining the relative advantage of alternative mail routes orthe cause of detention to articles

Q22 When will use the term C A P

Air parcel is sent inside an airmail bag

 Q23 What is the meaning of CAP

Contains air parcel

Q24 The term due mail comprises all the bags, articles and documents which must be dispatched every day or at regularintervals

The above said statement isTrue

Q25 Mention the difference between the term face and facing ofarticle

Face of an article is the side on which the address is writtenFacing means the arrangement of articles with the address-sideupwards and the addresses turned in the same direction.

PA/SA Exam Study Materials - Act under british rule

Regulating Act, 1773-First step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India

Pitt's India Act, 1784 It was introduced to remove the drawbacks of the Regulating Act

Charter Act, 1813  Monopoly of Company's trade abolished except trade in tea & trade with China

Charter Act, 1833 It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India.

Charter Act, 1853 The legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General's Council were separated.

Government of India Act, 1858 This Act transferred the Government territories and revenues of India from the East India Company to the British Crown.

Indian Councils Act, 1861 Governor- General's Executive Council should have some Indians as the non-official members while transacting the legislative businesses.

Indian Councils Act, 1892  Enlarged the functions of the Legislative Councils and gave them the power of discussing the Budget and addressing questions to the Executive

Indian Councils Act, 1909- This Act is also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms (Lord Morley was the then Secretary of State for India and Lord Minto was the then Governor- General of India). Introduction of an element of direct elections to the Legislative Councils

Government of India Act, 1919-  This Act is also known as the Montague Chelmsford Reforms. Montague was the then Secretary of State and Lord Chelmsford was the then Governor General of India. The act was meant to provide "Responsible Govt". in India

Government of India Act of 1935  The Act provided for the establishment of an 'All-India Federation' consisting of the Provinces and the Princely States as the units.

Indian Independence Act of 1947 It declared India as an Independent and Sovereign State

General Knowledge for PA/SA Exam

Q.1) Bharat Nirman Scheme of the UPA Government does not include :
(A) Rural Water Supply Project
(B) Irrigation Benefit Programme
(C) Rural Electrification
(D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

Q.2) Which one of the following committee recommended the abolition of reservation of items for the
small scale sector in industry?
(A) Abid Hussain Committee
(B) Narasimhan Committee
(C) Nayak Committee
(D) Rakesh Mohan Committee

Q.3) In the last one decade which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct
Investment inflows into India?
(A) Chemicals other than fertilizers
(B) Services sector
(C) Food Processing
(D) Telecommunication

Q.4) Who formulates the monetary policy in India?
(A) SEBI (B) RBI
(C) Finance Ministry (D) Planning Commission

Q.5) The population of Uttar Pradesh has been rapidly growing during the last two decades because of :
(A) Increased literacy rate (B) Improvement in health and control of diseases
(C) Improved agriculture (D) Rapid urbanization

Q.6) Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Educated unemployment increases with high rate of economic growth.
Reason (R) : It happens only when there is lack of professional education.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.

Q.7) Six more Public Sector Undertakings have been accorded status of miniratna by Government of India
(September 2006). Choose the one which is not included amongst them from the following :
(A) Bharat Sanchar Nigam
(B) Indian Telephone Industries
(C) Hindustan Latex
(D) Rashtriya Ispat

Q.8) Consider according to Buddhism :
Assertion (A) : There is no rebirth.
Reason (R) : There is no soul.
Now select your answer from the following code :
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.

Q.9) Which one of the following propounded that destiny determines everything, man is powerless?
(A) Jainas (B) Buddhists
(C) Ajivakas (D) Mimansakas

Q.10) Lord Buddha preached the following four noble truths. Put them in correct order using the code given
below :
(a) There is suffering.
(b) There is cessation of suffering.
(c) There is a path leading to the cessation of suffering.
(d) There is cause of suffering.
Codes :
(A) a, d, b, c
(B) a, d, c, b
(C) a, c, b, d
(D) a, b, d, c

Q.11) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya was the disciple of :
(A) Sheikh Alauddin Sabir
(B) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti
(C) Baba Farid
(D) Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi

Q.12) Which one of the following was favoured by Nehru but not favoured by Gandhiji?
(A) Truth (B) Non-violence
(C) Untouchability (D) Heavy industrialisation

Q.13) Consider :
Assertion (A) : Nehru had no regard for the Upanishads.
Reason (R) : His attitude was scientific.
Now select your answer from the following code :
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.

Q.14) Ashtadhayi was written by :
(A) Vedavyas (B) Panini
(C) Shukadeva (D) Balmiki

Q.15) Adi Shankaracharya established four mathas. These mathas are situated at :
(A) Sringeri, Dwarka, Joshimath, Prayab
(B) Dwarka, Joshimath, Prayag, Kanchi
(C) Joshimath, Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri
(D) Puri, Sringeri, Dwarka, Varanasi

Q.16) Who was the founder of ‘Servants of India Society’?
(A) Madan Mohan Malviya
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Justice Ranade
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Q.17) The third Sangam was held at :
(A) Arrikkamedu (B) Ernakulam
(C) Madurai (D) Tuticorin

Q.18) Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Satya Shodhak Samaj’?
(A) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar (B) Jyotiba Phule
(C) Narayan Guru (D) Ramaswamy Naicker

Q.19) Cotton for textile was first cultivated in :
(A) Egypt (B) Mesopotamia
(C) Central America (D) India

Q.20) Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : Muhammad Tughlaq’s scheme of token currency was a failure.
Reason (R) : Muhammad Tughlaq had no proper control over the issuance of coins.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.

Q.21) By which name was Chanakya known in his childhood?
(A) Ajaya (B) Chanakya
(C) Vishnugupta (D) Deogupta

Q.22) Rock cut architecture in Harapan culture context has been found at :
(A) Kalibangan (B) Dhaulabira
(C) Kotdiji (D) Amri
Q.23) Where was the first Madarsa set up by the British in India?
(A) Madras (B) Bombay
(C) Aligarh (D) Calcutta

Q.24) Who among the following Pakistani National was awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ by the Indian
Government?
(A) Liaqat Ali Khan
(B) M.A.Jinnah
(C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(D) Muhammad Iqbal

Q.25) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Lachchu Maharaj 1. Dhrupad
(b) Fayyaz Khan 2. Ghazal
(c) Sidheshwari Devi 3. Kathak
(d) Talat Mehmood 4. Thumri


Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 1 4

ANSWERS

1. (D)
2. (A)
3. (D)
4. (B)
5. (D)
6. (A)
7. (B)
8. (D)
9. (C)
10. (A)
11. (C)
12. (D)
13. (D)
14. (B)
15. (C)
16. (D)
17. (C)
18. (B)
19. (D)
20. (A)
21. (C)
22. (B)
23. (D)
24. (C)
25. (B)

APTITUDE TEST- DECEMBER 2009

 PART 1 – ENGLISH
( Select the most appropriate word/set of words)

1.  The word most nearly opposite in meaning to Valor
a.   admonition 
b.    Injustice        
c.   Cowardice    
d .  Generosity

2.   The word most nearly similar in meaning to tentative
a.   Prevalent      
b.   Portable      
c.   Making        
d.  Experimental

3.  The pair whose relationship is most  like  the relationship expressed in the pair  beggar: beg
a.     Medium- Advise             
b.    Mediator: Disagree 
C.    Mercenary : Demand      
d.    Mentor : Guide

Fill in the Blanks   (  Question  4-10 )
4.   We list confidence in him because he never ------------------his promise.
5.   Her true feelings  --------------- themselves in her sarcastic asides; only then  was  her ------------- revealed

6.   Technically glass is a mineral and ---------------
a.    Water so      
b.    water is so     
c.    so is water     
d.    so water is

7.   Rajasthan   --------------- a very climate
a.     ha
b.    being                 
c.     having               
d.    with

8   One of   the  least effective ways of storing information is leaning
a. how repeat              
b. repeating   
c. to repeat    
d. Repeat

9     Many modern architects insist on------------------ materials native to the region
      that will blend in to surroundings landscape .
a. use             
b. to use                
c. the use           
d. using

10.  By the  time a baby has reached its first birthday , he should , without the help of  an 
      adult ----------------- sit up or even stand up.
a. to be able      
b. able to          
c. to be able      
d. be able to

PART II: MATHEMATICS
11.     A jar contains 10 red marbles and 30 green Ones. How many red marbles must   be added to the jar so that 60 % of the marbles will be red?

a.    25                
b.    30               
c.     35                      
d.     40

12.    Driving at 48 miles per hour, how many minutes will take to drive 32miles.
a.   23        
b    32         
c.    40        
d.    45         
             
13.    If  a = 9*8321 and b=9*7321 what is the value of a –
a.    8000        
b.   9000                
c.    7000             
d. 6000

14.    From 1989 to 1990, the number of applicants to a college increased 15 % to 5000.
          How many applications were there in 1989?
a. 759           
b. 4301         
c. 4400              
d. 5819

15.   Find two numbers whose sum is 27 and product is 182
a.   11, 12         
b.   12, 13           
c.   13, 14   
d.   14, 15

16.   How many three- digit numbers are divisible by 7 ?
a.    108         
b.   118.            
c.   128 
d.  138

17    Liz is now twice as old as Jose but 6 years ago she was 5 times as old as he was.       How old Liz now?
a. 10           
b. 16           
c. 20                
d. 24

18.    What is the sum of the product and quotient of 8 and 8 ?
a.   62        
b.   63             
c.   64            
d .  65

19. Liz  solved   24  Maths problems in 15 minutes.  At this rate, how many problems can she solve in 40 minutes?
a.    25        
b.   64           
c.    40      
d.   48

20.    If the average (arithmetic mean) of 25,31 and x is 37 what is the value of  x?
a.     31      
b.    37               
c.     43                
d.    55